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Topic: Evidence...
Redykeulous's photo
Fri 12/11/09 09:09 PM
Actually, I wasn’t trying to “support a position” so much as “present a viewpoint” (or “frame of reference”). The very viewpoint itself is somewhat anethema to “supporting a position”. By it’s very nature it says that all positions are just as valid as all other positions because “validity” itself is dependent on a frame of reference.



I think your "frame of reference" fluctuates because you cannot exist in this physical realm without accepting your inability to control objective features within it.

Agreement about anything without objective evidence is simply a meeting of minds, an agreement of opinion. To validate the opinion there must be something OUTSIDE the mind (objective and independent of mind) that can be used as evidence to support your opinion.

You can only do this if you agree that you exist in this physical realm that is not created by you, not controlled by you and is independent of your state of mind.

If you disagree with that, then your 'frame of reference' is skewed and inconsistent (fluctuates) probably based on your need to interact with the objective world, like everyone else, and your desire to believe you are not part of it or that you, in some manner, control it beyond normally accepted abilities.

The duality of your philosophical ideology (of existence) is so subjectively constructed that it cannot pertain to the reality of the physical world.

I think that is why you insist on redefining words, on reframing arguments, and continue to support that only a subjective view of reality can exist.

That is the only way you can maintain (support) your philosophical ideology. But this ideology is of your construct and insisting on redefining words and concepts in support of it does not change the nature of objective reality any more than agreement with another mind validates an opinion.









SkyHook5652's photo
Fri 12/11/09 10:37 PM
So what I’m saying is that objectivity itself is a subjective construct and the only thing that makes something “objective” is agreement, which necessitates two subjective viewpoints.
… if YOU are not perceiving something directly – it no longer exists. As you turn away from you’re vehicle, for example, it dissolves as if it were an illusion that only YOU could create.
Well, let’s examine the difference between “perceiving it” and “not perceiving it” in the same terms.

If it is true that all perception exists as nothing but mental state, then the difference between “perceiving it” and “not perceiving it” is only a difference in mental state. The thing perceived doesn’t appear and disappear any more than the mental state appears and disappears.

This suggests that nothing exists outside a subjective “mental” state. … If this is truly what you believe, then there can be no “others” because if you perceive others then you are creating the illusion of ‘others’ from a subjective state of mind.
I never intended to suggest that “nothing exists outside of a subjective ‘mental’ state”. I do not believe that “there can be no ‘others’”. And I thought that was implicit in my statements about agreement (ref: “…agreement, which necessitates two subjective viewpoints.”)

I simply differentiate between “other viewpoints” and “other objects”.

I’m not saying that “all methodologies are subjective”. I’m only saying that what we label as “objective” requires two subjective viewpoints being in agreement, as opposed to what we label “purely subjective”, which is a single subjective viewpoint with no requirement for agreement.
…If objectivity is a subjective construct then all methodologies have to be subjective. If all methodologies are subjective then we would not be able to use heuristics, or make predictions that would allow us to competently and confidently interact with the material world.
That’s not the way I see it.

There is nothing in the concept of “all methodologies must be subjective” that necessarily excludes heuristics or prediction or competently and confidently interact with the material world.

If all methodologies are subjective, then that makes heuristics and prediction and competently and confidently interacting with the material world subjective processes as well.

Also, according to the statement above you are not granting existence to any OTHER thing so there is no agreement to be had, there is simply your subjective state of mind.
There appears to be some miscommunication here. As I said above, I am “granting existence” to other. Both “other viewpoints” and “other objects”. That is implicit in the requirement for agreement.

Now relating that to “evidence”, we can see that objective evidence requires agreement. Without that agreement, it is not “objective”. All "evidence" remains subjective unless and until agreement occurs.
Agreement between subject (yourself) and what?
Another subject/self.

OBJECT, in this discussion, is something that exists without your conceiving it in your mind, and without your having to perceive it.

It exists without you permission or without your agreement that it should exist. OBJECT has qualities and properties that are independent of mind.

If an object has known attributes of properties and qualities then no amount of thought will change its inherent/intrinsic nature and that nature will not change if you disagree with another about it.
If that is so, then this is not a philosophical discussion, but a scientific one. And from that perspective, I would have to agree with everything you’ve said – and bow out of the conversation.

And this is why I continually keep harping on the idea that no methodology is any more inherently valid than any other methodology. The most that can be said is that some methodology has more agreement than another.
Taking subjective feeling/emotions, prejudices, and interpretations out of an evaluation is the goal of scientific methodology. You insist that it can’t be done, but you do so under the influence of a subjective interpretation that does not allow for objects to exist or interact with the our physical realm apart from you agreement that it can.
Not so. Never did I say that objects don’t exist or interact with our physical realm. (But that’s not even really a statement I understand very well. Objects are our physical realm and they do interact. To deny that would be to deny the agreement.)

And that’s not even to say that agreement can’t be considered a measure of validity either. In fact, agreement really is what determines validity in the final analysis.
Agreement about the nature of an object holds no validity beyond the subjective -- unless qualities or properties of what is being assessed can be quantitatively applied to consistent and relevant predictions. That is objective evidence - unaffected by subjective interpretation.
Yes, and that methodology is agreed upon as being the definition for objectivity. It is really saying that “we agree that ‘this’ is what we will call ‘objective’ and ‘that’ is what we will call ‘subjective’”. And in the final analysis, what we call it is based on agreement.


SkyHook5652's photo
Fri 12/11/09 11:07 PM
Actually, I wasn’t trying to “support a position” so much as “present a viewpoint” (or “frame of reference”). The very viewpoint itself is somewhat anethema to “supporting a position”. By it’s very nature it says that all positions are just as valid as all other positions because “validity” itself is dependent on a frame of reference.
I think your "frame of reference" fluctuates because you cannot exist in this physical realm without accepting your inability to control objective features within it.

Agreement about anything without objective evidence is simply a meeting of minds, an agreement of opinion. To validate the opinion there must be something OUTSIDE the mind (objective and independent of mind) that can be used as evidence to support your opinion.

You can only do this if you agree that you exist in this physical realm that is not created by you, not controlled by you and is independent of your state of mind.

If you disagree with that, then your 'frame of reference' is skewed and inconsistent (fluctuates) probably based on your need to interact with the objective world, like everyone else, and your desire to believe you are not part of it or that you, in some manner, control it beyond normally accepted abilities.

The duality of your philosophical ideology (of existence) is so subjectively constructed that it cannot pertain to the reality of the physical world.

I think that is why you insist on redefining words, on reframing arguments, and continue to support that only a subjective view of reality can exist.

That is the only way you can maintain (support) your philosophical ideology. But this ideology is of your construct and insisting on redefining words and concepts in support of it does not change the nature of objective reality any more than agreement with another mind validates an opinion.
And on the other hand. your misunderstanding of my philosophy, combined with that pop psychology evaluation of me personally, indicates to me that your opinions have been so intractably cemented that it is impossible for you to acknowledge that any opinion that does not agree with yours should ever be considered as having any merit.

So are we even now?

Abracadabra's photo
Fri 12/11/09 11:12 PM
Di wrote:

I think your "frame of reference" fluctuates because you cannot exist in this physical realm without accepting your inability to control objective features within it.


Do we have any evidence for that?

It's my understanding that the empirical evidence discovered by science reveals just the opposite, that we cannot even observe this universe without directly affecting it.

So has our inability to control the objective features within this universe been established?

I don't necessarily see any evidence for that. I see evidence to the contrary. For me, the question isn't whether we have control, we certainly do. The real question is how much control do we actually have? Perhaps we have more control than we realize and just don't fully understand how to implement our control.

After all, many scientists believe that we are even destroying the biosphere of our planet. That's quite a bit of "control". Maybe not toward a result we'd like, but just the same it's still control none-the-less. bigsmile

In fact, we may be controlling things far more than we realize when we have no idea that we are actually doing it. Simply because we refuse to recognize that we are part of a whole.

So I don't see where there is any evidence that suggests that we have no control over the objective features of this universe. It seems to me that just the opposite has been utterly confirmed.

creativesoul's photo
Fri 12/11/09 11:14 PM
Edited by creativesoul on Fri 12/11/09 11:28 PM
Sky,

I think - even moreso now than before - that in your presentation(evidence presented) you're conflating objectivity and subjectivity into some hybrid of the two, which I am still failing to make any sense of. She explained those things well enough, in my opinion. It was a very direct approach, and basically extrapolated upon the irrefutable fact that I mentioned earlier(that being the reasons for objective methodology). Just because there is no such thing as purely objective assessment of evidence does not place all evidence nor assessment on equal footing, especially when it comes to having the most accurate correlation to actuality. That is the goal.

Earlier you asked why not allow emotional content to play a role in methodological assessment, or words to that effect...

Actuality does not care how one feels about it.

creativesoul's photo
Fri 12/11/09 11:22 PM
Edited by creativesoul on Fri 12/11/09 11:27 PM
Di wrote:

I think your "frame of reference" fluctuates because you cannot exist in this physical realm without accepting your inability to control objective features within it.


Abra responds:

Do we have any evidence for that?


huh

Yeah. It is commonly called... science?

Abracadabra's photo
Fri 12/11/09 11:28 PM
Creative wrote:

Actuality does not care how one feels about it.


First off, how do you know that this is true?

Secondly, what does "caring" have to do with anything? spock

Maybe are more 'objective' way to think of it might be the following:

1. Do emotions produce and project any 'objective' vibrations or aura into the 'objective' universe?

2. If they do, then perhaps they could have an 'objective' interaction with the 'objective' universe?

That interaction doesn't need to 'care' about anything.

Does a magnetic field need to 'care' about an electron to be affected by it, or to have an effect on the electron?

What should 'caring' have to with it?

Are you suggesting that emotions are a totally non-existent 'phenomena' in a physical sense?

Abracadabra's photo
Fri 12/11/09 11:30 PM

Di wrote:

I think your "frame of reference" fluctuates because you cannot exist in this physical realm without accepting your inability to control objective features within it.


Abra responds:

Do we have any evidence for that?


huh

Yeah. It is commonly called... science?


To each their own. drinker

It's my understand that science has shown us precisely the opposite is true. Not to mention our everyday practical experiences.

creativesoul's photo
Fri 12/11/09 11:32 PM
creative:

Actuality does not care how one feels about it.


Abra:

First off, how do you know that this is true?


laugh

Wish in one hand...

Abracadabra's photo
Fri 12/11/09 11:35 PM

creative:

Actuality does not care how one feels about it.


Abra:

First off, how do you know that this is true?


laugh

Wish in one hand...


I thought you were interested in genuine discussions? spock

creativesoul's photo
Fri 12/11/09 11:46 PM
This discussion is concerning evidence Abra. I gave evidence to answer your question. That was all that was needed to logically show that actuality does not care how one feels about it, assuming one knows what that redneck colloquialism means. It means that one can wish in one hand while doing nothing else, and see what affect you'll have on actuality.

One can want something more than anything, and that alone does not affect what exists outside of that want. I will be however tall I am, regardless of how I feel about it. How I feel does not matter when assessing that objective situation.

The same holds true of objective evidence, it is independently verifiable without being contingent upon personal grounds for it's existence.


Abracadabra's photo
Sat 12/12/09 12:16 AM

This discussion is concerning evidence Abra. I gave evidence to answer your question. That was all that was needed to logically show that actuality does not care how one feels about it, assuming one knows what that redneck colloquialism means. It means that one can wish in one hand while doing nothing else, and see what affect you'll have on actuality.

One can want something more than anything, and that alone does not affect what exists outside of that want. I will be however tall I am, regardless of how I feel about it. How I feel does not matter when assessing that objective situation.

The same holds true of objective evidence, it is independently verifiable without being contingent upon personal grounds for it's existence.


Surely you must think people fools to believe that they aren't aware of the obvious.

Oh by the way, I'm fully aware of what you meant by your "redneck colloquialism". Don't kid yourself on that one. ohwell

I hope you find the evidence you're seeking.

Good luck. drinker

creativesoul's photo
Sat 12/12/09 12:26 AM
It's my understanding that the empirical evidence discovered by science reveals just the opposite, that we cannot even observe this universe without directly affecting it.


It is my understanding that in order to even be able to draw that conclusion, one must first mislabel The Copenhagen Interpretation of QM as QM, therefore if it is so revealed it can be so applied...

Show me any evidence which logically concludes that your observation of a hurricane affects that hurricane in any way, shape, or form.

Observing the moon?

Red-shifted starlight?

The golden gate bridge?

Watching the television?

Observing the sunrise?


creativesoul's photo
Sat 12/12/09 12:34 AM
Surely you must think people fools to believe that they aren't aware of the obvious.


Whatever you're talking about is not so obvious to me. Would you care to elaborate?

Oh by the way, I'm fully aware of what you meant by your "redneck colloquialism". Don't kid yourself on that one.


No need to kid myself, for not only do I know exactly what that phrase is used for, if being used by a redneck, but I also recognize the underlying philosophical wisdom contained within it.

That is what I meant, and exactly what I wrote.

Talk about the posts, not the posters!

grumble

You asked simple questions, I gave sufficiently simple answers.


Abracadabra's photo
Sat 12/12/09 12:53 AM
Edited by Abracadabra on Sat 12/12/09 01:10 AM
I guess you're right.

In the end it doesn't really matter.

You're happy with what you consider to be 'evidence' and I'm happy with what I consider to be 'evidence'.

That's really all that's important. drinker

creativesoul's photo
Sat 12/12/09 01:11 AM
Edited by creativesoul on Sat 12/12/09 01:28 AM
Abra claimed:

It's my understanding that the empirical evidence discovered by science reveals just the opposite, that we cannot even observe this universe without directly affecting it.


creative responded:

It is my understanding that in order to even be able to draw that conclusion, one must first mislabel The Copenhagen Interpretation of QM as QM, therefore if it is so revealed it can be so applied...

Show me any evidence which logically concludes that your observation of a hurricane affects that hurricane in any way, shape, or form.

Observing the moon?

Red-shifted starlight?

The golden gate bridge?

Watching the television?

Observing the sunrise?


Abra answers:

I don't ever recall claiming any such ridiculous things.

Like I say, you must think people fools if you think they are suggesting something that impractical. Or perhaps you have met a lot of fools in your life who have suggested such impractical things and that's where you get that attitude from.

In any case, good luck in your search for evidence. I've already found mine.


Again, can you direct your attention at the posts rather than what you think about the poster? My personal life is not your concern and is irrelevant.

grumble

Without anything other than your opinion, you claimed this...

It's my understanding that the empirical evidence discovered by science reveals just the opposite, that we cannot even observe this universe without directly affecting it.


Opinions are measured with logic.

If it is true that we cannot even observe the universe without directly affecting it, then that must be true of all things which constitute the universe as well. If it were not that way, then the claim would not make sense anyway. For if we only affected *some* things directly by observation, then one could not possibly claim that 'we cannot even observe the universe without directly affecting it.' All of those things I mentioned are necessarily a part of this universe, and obviously exist without being affected directly by our observation, therefore your claim is false, and I just showed why.

Please note that I did not choose the term 'ridiculous'.

flowerforyou


creativesoul's photo
Sat 12/12/09 01:33 AM
By the way, that evidence falsely equated sub-atomic particle behavior with 'the universe' in general.

Categorical judgment error.

flowerforyou

creativesoul's photo
Sat 12/12/09 02:00 AM
creative:

That was an unnecessarily long answer Sky. Even after reading it through several times, I am still left with a sense of not really knowing exactly what you're getting at. I mean, there are some good points to begin with in both of your last two 'in depth' responses, but I fail to see those being successfully connected with each other. There are also a few self-contradicting statements in addition to a few things which I believe are either being conflated or grossly oversimplified. So before proceeding here, I guess the only thing that I would like to ask you at this point in time is this...

What idea are you attempting to support with that given evidence?


Sky:

Very good question.

I didn’t really have a particular idea in mind that I was trying to support other than something along the lines of “To each his own”.


I did not find that idea to be expressed clearly in the midst of all of that.

Or maybe to align it with the thread topic, “Evidence is in the eye of the beholder.”

Actually, I wasn’t trying to “support a position” so much as “present a viewpoint” (or “frame of reference”). The very viewpoint itself is somewhat anethema to “supporting a position”. By it’s very nature it says that all positions are just as valid as all other positions because “validity” itself is dependent on a frame of reference.


I found it to be counter-productive as well.

And that’s not to deny that I ever get involved in “supporting a position”. It is blatantly obvious, from many of my posts in these forums, that I do. But in my own mind, that is more of an “exercise in honing my communication skills” than anything else.


Good cause. I attempt to hone my own with logical intention.

flowerforyou

no photo
Sat 12/12/09 09:02 AM
Edited by Jeanniebean on Sat 12/12/09 09:26 AM
frustrated frustrated

frustrated frustrated



no photo
Sat 12/12/09 09:11 AM

So what I’m saying is that objectivity itself is a subjective construct and the only thing that makes something “objective” is agreement, which necessitates two subjective viewpoints.


This suggests that nothing exists outside a subjective “mental” state. In other words, if YOU are not perceiving something directly – it no longer exists. As you turn away from you’re vehicle, for example, it dissolves as if it were an illusion that only YOU could create.

If this is truly what you believe, then there can be no “others” because if you perceive others then you are creating the illusion of ‘others’ from a subjective state of mind.


I’m not saying that “all methodologies are subjective”. I’m only saying that what we label as “objective” requires two subjective viewpoints being in agreement, as opposed to what we label “purely subjective”, which is a single subjective viewpoint with no requirement for agreement.


This is not a logical conclusion to your statement above. If objectivity is a subjective construct then all methodologies have to be subjective. If all methodologies are subjective then we would not be able to use hueristics, or make predictions that would allow us to competantly and confidently interact with the material world.

Also, according to the statement above you are not granting existence to any OTHER thing so there is no agreement to be had, there is simply your subjective state of mind.

Now relating that to “evidence”, we can see that objective evidence requires agreement. Without that agreement, it is not “objective”. All "evidence" remains subjective unless and until agreement occurs.


Agreement between subject (yourself) and what?

OBJECT, in this discussion, is something that exists without your conceiving it in your mind, and without your having to perceive it.

It exists without you permission or without your agreement that it should exist. OBJECT has qualities and properties that are independent of mind.

If an object has known attributes of properties and qualities then no amount of thought will change its inherent/intrinsic nature and that nature will not change if you disagree with another about it.

And this is why I continually keep harping on the idea that no methodology is any more inherently valid than any other methodology. The most that can be said is that some methodology has more agreement than another.


Taking subjective feeling/emotions, prejudices, and interpretations out of an evaluation is the goal of scientific methodology. You insist that it can’t be done, but you do so under the influence of a subjective interpretation that does not allow for objects to exist or interact with the our physical realm apart from you agreement that it can.

And that’s not even to say that agreement can’t be considered a measure of validity either. In fact, agreement really is what determines validity in the final analysis.


Agreement about the nature of an object holds no validity beyond the subjective -- unless qualities or properties of what is being assessed can be quantitatively applied to consistent and relevant predictions. That is objective evidence - unaffected by subjective interpretation.




Di, you totally don't get what Sky is saying. Try harder.


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