Topic: Can mary save?
no photo
Mon 12/31/12 08:41 AM



Sorry Funches, but a puppet has no desires, no wants. It automatically does what the puppet master forces it to do. It doesn't act on it's own, out of it's own desires. It's actually not even the puppet doing anything, but the puppet master doing everything even down to the voice.


yep, that's exactly what Jesus was doing

this is why I asked you for a passage from the bible in which Jesus did his own Will apart from the father ....this will prove that he is not a puppet .....

so ...er.. can you provide one?



Again what in the world are you talking about Funches?

Jesus did the will of the father on his own, his desire to do the will of the father. Not because he had no other choice lol.

What does one gain by doing their own will above another? They only gain for themselves, that is a bit selfish Funches. Do you only do your will and not the will of others?


Cowboy...all you have to do is provide "one" passage which displays how Jesus has a Will of his own and is not God's Pinocchio

CowboyGH's photo
Mon 12/31/12 10:07 AM




Again, has no reference to the Word. And does not say Jeremiah was with God in the beginning. Does not say anything about Jeremiah in the beginning nor any reference of him about being in the beginning in any of the scriptures. God did not create Jeremiah in the beginning. Please Funches, stay on track here.


God didn't create Jesus in the beginning....check the scriptures...you won't find the name "Jesus" anywhere in Genesis ...

Jesus like Jeremiah like everyone, was in the beginning "The Word" until they became or become seperated from God by being born in the flesh


The Word is a singular noun, it is not Words and is not referring to more then one being. The ONLY place it refers to the Word becoming flesh is with Jesus.

And again, show where there's evidence EVERYONE was with God in the beginning. I can show where just the Word was in the beginning with God and man/woman was created later.


Man is also a singular noun...and refers to a race of people ...therefore The Word refers to those not yet in the flesh


Aye, you are correct. But if you look at the original writings/scriptures, it translates into mankind and womankind more properly rather then just man and woman.

CowboyGH's photo
Mon 12/31/12 10:15 AM




Sorry Funches, but a puppet has no desires, no wants. It automatically does what the puppet master forces it to do. It doesn't act on it's own, out of it's own desires. It's actually not even the puppet doing anything, but the puppet master doing everything even down to the voice.


yep, that's exactly what Jesus was doing

this is why I asked you for a passage from the bible in which Jesus did his own Will apart from the father ....this will prove that he is not a puppet .....

so ...er.. can you provide one?



Again what in the world are you talking about Funches?

Jesus did the will of the father on his own, his desire to do the will of the father. Not because he had no other choice lol.

What does one gain by doing their own will above another? They only gain for themselves, that is a bit selfish Funches. Do you only do your will and not the will of others?


Cowboy...all you have to do is provide "one" passage which displays how Jesus has a Will of his own and is not God's Pinocchio


Doing his father's will, was his will. Why would he seek his own? Why would he not seek the will of his father's? Jesus came to fulfill the old covenant, give us a new covenant, and to set an example. And is why he specifically came down to be in the flesh, to show an example. And not just specifically give us the commandments as an order, but to live the commandments out to show an example. He did his father's will just as we are to.

That right there is why he is considered the son of God. Because he listened and obeyed God's commandments, just as a child listens and obeys their parent.

Matthew 7:21
21 Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven.


CowboyGH's photo
Mon 12/31/12 10:18 AM





Sorry Funches, but a puppet has no desires, no wants. It automatically does what the puppet master forces it to do. It doesn't act on it's own, out of it's own desires. It's actually not even the puppet doing anything, but the puppet master doing everything even down to the voice.


yep, that's exactly what Jesus was doing

this is why I asked you for a passage from the bible in which Jesus did his own Will apart from the father ....this will prove that he is not a puppet .....

so ...er.. can you provide one?



Again what in the world are you talking about Funches?

Jesus did the will of the father on his own, his desire to do the will of the father. Not because he had no other choice lol.

What does one gain by doing their own will above another? They only gain for themselves, that is a bit selfish Funches. Do you only do your will and not the will of others?


Cowboy...all you have to do is provide "one" passage which displays how Jesus has a Will of his own and is not God's Pinocchio


Doing his father's will, was his will. Why would he seek his own? Why would he not seek the will of his father's? Jesus came to fulfill the old covenant, give us a new covenant, and to set an example. And is why he specifically came down to be in the flesh, to show an example. And not just specifically give us the commandments as an order, but to live the commandments out to show an example. He did his father's will just as we are to.

That right there is why he is considered the son of God. Because he listened and obeyed God's commandments, just as a child listens and obeys their parent.

Matthew 7:21
21 Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven.




But he obeyed willingly, thus it was his will as well.

We do not obey Jesus out of direst, or being forced to. We willingly obey God. We make our will one with the father by obeying his will willingly and not out of threat or being forced to.

no photo
Mon 12/31/12 10:32 AM





Again, has no reference to the Word. And does not say Jeremiah was with God in the beginning. Does not say anything about Jeremiah in the beginning nor any reference of him about being in the beginning in any of the scriptures. God did not create Jeremiah in the beginning. Please Funches, stay on track here.


God didn't create Jesus in the beginning....check the scriptures...you won't find the name "Jesus" anywhere in Genesis ...

Jesus like Jeremiah like everyone, was in the beginning "The Word" until they became or become seperated from God by being born in the flesh


The Word is a singular noun, it is not Words and is not referring to more then one being. The ONLY place it refers to the Word becoming flesh is with Jesus.

And again, show where there's evidence EVERYONE was with God in the beginning. I can show where just the Word was in the beginning with God and man/woman was created later.


Man is also a singular noun...and refers to a race of people ...therefore The Word refers to those not yet in the flesh


Aye, you are correct. But if you look at the original writings/scriptures, it translates into mankind and womankind more properly rather then just man and woman.


in that case "The Word" translates to "The Wordkind"

In The Beginning there were The Wordkind, and The Wordkind was with God and The Wordkind was God

either way everyone was there in the beginning as "The Word"..."didn't you always claim that "ye are gods"?



no photo
Mon 12/31/12 10:36 AM





Sorry Funches, but a puppet has no desires, no wants. It automatically does what the puppet master forces it to do. It doesn't act on it's own, out of it's own desires. It's actually not even the puppet doing anything, but the puppet master doing everything even down to the voice.


yep, that's exactly what Jesus was doing

this is why I asked you for a passage from the bible in which Jesus did his own Will apart from the father ....this will prove that he is not a puppet .....

so ...er.. can you provide one?



Again what in the world are you talking about Funches?

Jesus did the will of the father on his own, his desire to do the will of the father. Not because he had no other choice lol.

What does one gain by doing their own will above another? They only gain for themselves, that is a bit selfish Funches. Do you only do your will and not the will of others?


Cowboy...all you have to do is provide "one" passage which displays how Jesus has a Will of his own and is not God's Pinocchio


Doing his father's will, was his will. Why would he seek his own? Why would he not seek the will of his father's? Jesus came to fulfill the old covenant, give us a new covenant, and to set an example. And is why he specifically came down to be in the flesh, to show an example. And not just specifically give us the commandments as an order, but to live the commandments out to show an example. He did his father's will just as we are to.

That right there is why he is considered the son of God. Because he listened and obeyed God's commandments, just as a child listens and obeys their parent.

Matthew 7:21
21 Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven.


Cowboy now you know that passage is not Jesus going against the Father's Will ....just admit that such a passage "doesn't exist" (no pun intended)

Jesus was a stepford puppet

CowboyGH's photo
Mon 12/31/12 10:49 AM






Again, has no reference to the Word. And does not say Jeremiah was with God in the beginning. Does not say anything about Jeremiah in the beginning nor any reference of him about being in the beginning in any of the scriptures. God did not create Jeremiah in the beginning. Please Funches, stay on track here.


God didn't create Jesus in the beginning....check the scriptures...you won't find the name "Jesus" anywhere in Genesis ...

Jesus like Jeremiah like everyone, was in the beginning "The Word" until they became or become seperated from God by being born in the flesh


The Word is a singular noun, it is not Words and is not referring to more then one being. The ONLY place it refers to the Word becoming flesh is with Jesus.

And again, show where there's evidence EVERYONE was with God in the beginning. I can show where just the Word was in the beginning with God and man/woman was created later.


Man is also a singular noun...and refers to a race of people ...therefore The Word refers to those not yet in the flesh


Aye, you are correct. But if you look at the original writings/scriptures, it translates into mankind and womankind more properly rather then just man and woman.


in that case "The Word" translates to "The Wordkind"

In The Beginning there were The Wordkind, and The Wordkind was with God and The Wordkind was God

either way everyone was there in the beginning as "The Word"..."didn't you always claim that "ye are gods"?





No it doesn't translate into wordkind lol. Again, you're a very funny man Funches. If you do not believe my statement of the more correct translation being "mankind and womankind" look it up and find for yourself Funches.

CowboyGH's photo
Mon 12/31/12 10:50 AM






Sorry Funches, but a puppet has no desires, no wants. It automatically does what the puppet master forces it to do. It doesn't act on it's own, out of it's own desires. It's actually not even the puppet doing anything, but the puppet master doing everything even down to the voice.


yep, that's exactly what Jesus was doing

this is why I asked you for a passage from the bible in which Jesus did his own Will apart from the father ....this will prove that he is not a puppet .....

so ...er.. can you provide one?



Again what in the world are you talking about Funches?

Jesus did the will of the father on his own, his desire to do the will of the father. Not because he had no other choice lol.

What does one gain by doing their own will above another? They only gain for themselves, that is a bit selfish Funches. Do you only do your will and not the will of others?


Cowboy...all you have to do is provide "one" passage which displays how Jesus has a Will of his own and is not God's Pinocchio


Doing his father's will, was his will. Why would he seek his own? Why would he not seek the will of his father's? Jesus came to fulfill the old covenant, give us a new covenant, and to set an example. And is why he specifically came down to be in the flesh, to show an example. And not just specifically give us the commandments as an order, but to live the commandments out to show an example. He did his father's will just as we are to.

That right there is why he is considered the son of God. Because he listened and obeyed God's commandments, just as a child listens and obeys their parent.

Matthew 7:21
21 Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven.


Cowboy now you know that passage is not Jesus going against the Father's Will ....just admit that such a passage "doesn't exist" (no pun intended)

Jesus was a stepford puppet


No, Jesus never did go against the Father's will, never claimed he did. Again, when Jesus said "My father and I are one" The word translated into that is speaking of wills. So to go against his Father's will, he would have to also go against his own will, that don't make much sense funches.

no photo
Mon 12/31/12 10:57 AM







Again, has no reference to the Word. And does not say Jeremiah was with God in the beginning. Does not say anything about Jeremiah in the beginning nor any reference of him about being in the beginning in any of the scriptures. God did not create Jeremiah in the beginning. Please Funches, stay on track here.


God didn't create Jesus in the beginning....check the scriptures...you won't find the name "Jesus" anywhere in Genesis ...

Jesus like Jeremiah like everyone, was in the beginning "The Word" until they became or become seperated from God by being born in the flesh


The Word is a singular noun, it is not Words and is not referring to more then one being. The ONLY place it refers to the Word becoming flesh is with Jesus.

And again, show where there's evidence EVERYONE was with God in the beginning. I can show where just the Word was in the beginning with God and man/woman was created later.


Man is also a singular noun...and refers to a race of people ...therefore The Word refers to those not yet in the flesh


Aye, you are correct. But if you look at the original writings/scriptures, it translates into mankind and womankind more properly rather then just man and woman.


in that case "The Word" translates to "The Wordkind"

In The Beginning there were The Wordkind, and The Wordkind was with God and The Wordkind was God

either way everyone was there in the beginning as "The Word"..."didn't you always claim that "ye are gods"?





No it doesn't translate into wordkind lol. Again, you're a very funny man Funches. If you do not believe my statement of the more correct translation being "mankind and womankind" look it up and find for yourself Funches.


I did look it up...it states that God made "Man" in his image...so is the bible wrong?

no photo
Mon 12/31/12 10:59 AM







Sorry Funches, but a puppet has no desires, no wants. It automatically does what the puppet master forces it to do. It doesn't act on it's own, out of it's own desires. It's actually not even the puppet doing anything, but the puppet master doing everything even down to the voice.


yep, that's exactly what Jesus was doing

this is why I asked you for a passage from the bible in which Jesus did his own Will apart from the father ....this will prove that he is not a puppet .....

so ...er.. can you provide one?



Again what in the world are you talking about Funches?

Jesus did the will of the father on his own, his desire to do the will of the father. Not because he had no other choice lol.

What does one gain by doing their own will above another? They only gain for themselves, that is a bit selfish Funches. Do you only do your will and not the will of others?


Cowboy...all you have to do is provide "one" passage which displays how Jesus has a Will of his own and is not God's Pinocchio


Doing his father's will, was his will. Why would he seek his own? Why would he not seek the will of his father's? Jesus came to fulfill the old covenant, give us a new covenant, and to set an example. And is why he specifically came down to be in the flesh, to show an example. And not just specifically give us the commandments as an order, but to live the commandments out to show an example. He did his father's will just as we are to.

That right there is why he is considered the son of God. Because he listened and obeyed God's commandments, just as a child listens and obeys their parent.

Matthew 7:21
21 Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven.


Cowboy now you know that passage is not Jesus going against the Father's Will ....just admit that such a passage "doesn't exist" (no pun intended)

Jesus was a stepford puppet


No, Jesus never did go against the Father's will, never claimed he did. Again, when Jesus said "My father and I are one" The word translated into that is speaking of wills. So to go against his Father's will, he would have to also go against his own will, that don't make much sense funches.


if you can't find one passage in which Jesus had a "Will" of his own.....then sign the surrender papers

it's these Perry Mason moments that makes it all worthwhile

CowboyGH's photo
Mon 12/31/12 11:02 AM








Again, has no reference to the Word. And does not say Jeremiah was with God in the beginning. Does not say anything about Jeremiah in the beginning nor any reference of him about being in the beginning in any of the scriptures. God did not create Jeremiah in the beginning. Please Funches, stay on track here.


God didn't create Jesus in the beginning....check the scriptures...you won't find the name "Jesus" anywhere in Genesis ...

Jesus like Jeremiah like everyone, was in the beginning "The Word" until they became or become seperated from God by being born in the flesh


The Word is a singular noun, it is not Words and is not referring to more then one being. The ONLY place it refers to the Word becoming flesh is with Jesus.

And again, show where there's evidence EVERYONE was with God in the beginning. I can show where just the Word was in the beginning with God and man/woman was created later.


Man is also a singular noun...and refers to a race of people ...therefore The Word refers to those not yet in the flesh


Aye, you are correct. But if you look at the original writings/scriptures, it translates into mankind and womankind more properly rather then just man and woman.


in that case "The Word" translates to "The Wordkind"

In The Beginning there were The Wordkind, and The Wordkind was with God and The Wordkind was God

either way everyone was there in the beginning as "The Word"..."didn't you always claim that "ye are gods"?





No it doesn't translate into wordkind lol. Again, you're a very funny man Funches. If you do not believe my statement of the more correct translation being "mankind and womankind" look it up and find for yourself Funches.


I did look it up...it states that God made "Man" in his image...so is the bible wrong?


Ment look it up outside of the bible, outside of a person(s) translation.

No the bible isn't wrong, "man" doesn't have to be referring to a singular being. The scripture(s) do not say God made "A" man, said he made man. It would be singular if it said he made "a" man, but it does not say such a thing.

CowboyGH's photo
Mon 12/31/12 11:04 AM








Sorry Funches, but a puppet has no desires, no wants. It automatically does what the puppet master forces it to do. It doesn't act on it's own, out of it's own desires. It's actually not even the puppet doing anything, but the puppet master doing everything even down to the voice.


yep, that's exactly what Jesus was doing

this is why I asked you for a passage from the bible in which Jesus did his own Will apart from the father ....this will prove that he is not a puppet .....

so ...er.. can you provide one?



Again what in the world are you talking about Funches?

Jesus did the will of the father on his own, his desire to do the will of the father. Not because he had no other choice lol.

What does one gain by doing their own will above another? They only gain for themselves, that is a bit selfish Funches. Do you only do your will and not the will of others?


Cowboy...all you have to do is provide "one" passage which displays how Jesus has a Will of his own and is not God's Pinocchio


Doing his father's will, was his will. Why would he seek his own? Why would he not seek the will of his father's? Jesus came to fulfill the old covenant, give us a new covenant, and to set an example. And is why he specifically came down to be in the flesh, to show an example. And not just specifically give us the commandments as an order, but to live the commandments out to show an example. He did his father's will just as we are to.

That right there is why he is considered the son of God. Because he listened and obeyed God's commandments, just as a child listens and obeys their parent.

Matthew 7:21
21 Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven.


Cowboy now you know that passage is not Jesus going against the Father's Will ....just admit that such a passage "doesn't exist" (no pun intended)

Jesus was a stepford puppet


No, Jesus never did go against the Father's will, never claimed he did. Again, when Jesus said "My father and I are one" The word translated into that is speaking of wills. So to go against his Father's will, he would have to also go against his own will, that don't make much sense funches.


if you can't find one passage in which Jesus had a "Will" of his own.....then sign the surrender papers

it's these Perry Mason moments that makes it all worthwhile


Surrender what papers? And what's Perry Mason have to do with anything?

Jesus said his father and him were one, he said their wills were one. So with doing his father's will, he was also doing his will.

no photo
Mon 12/31/12 11:20 AM

No the bible isn't wrong, "man" doesn't have to be referring to a singular being. The scripture(s) do not say God made "A" man, said he made man. It would be singular if it said he made "a" man, but it does not say such a thing.


if the bible isn't wrong, then it's "Man" not "Mankind"

it's amazing how you try to prove your point by trying to prove that the bible has been mis-translated ....

CowboyGH's photo
Mon 12/31/12 11:23 AM
Edited by CowboyGH on Mon 12/31/12 11:23 AM


No the bible isn't wrong, "man" doesn't have to be referring to a singular being. The scripture(s) do not say God made "A" man, said he made man. It would be singular if it said he made "a" man, but it does not say such a thing.


if the bible isn't wrong, then it's "Man" not "Mankind"

it's amazing how you try to prove your point by trying to prove that the bible has been mis-translated ....


It means the SAME thing Funches lol. Again, it does not say "a" man, says man. And no I never said it was mis-translated.

no photo
Mon 12/31/12 11:24 AM

Surrender what papers? And what's Perry Mason have to do with anything?

Jesus said his father and him were one, he said their wills were one. So with doing his father's will, he was also doing his will.


Cowboy...I've asked for a passage in which Jesus has his own will....

ok, I'll give you one

Father Father why hath thou forsaken me .....oops wrong one, that one proves that Jesus and the Father "are not one"

CowboyGH's photo
Mon 12/31/12 11:24 AM



No the bible isn't wrong, "man" doesn't have to be referring to a singular being. The scripture(s) do not say God made "A" man, said he made man. It would be singular if it said he made "a" man, but it does not say such a thing.


if the bible isn't wrong, then it's "Man" not "Mankind"

it's amazing how you try to prove your point by trying to prove that the bible has been mis-translated ....


It means the SAME thing Funches lol. Again, it does not say "a" man, says man. And no I never said it was mis-translated.


Genesis 1:27
New International Version (NIV)
27 So God created mankind in his own image,
in the image of God he created them;
male and female he created them.

no photo
Mon 12/31/12 11:25 AM



No the bible isn't wrong, "man" doesn't have to be referring to a singular being. The scripture(s) do not say God made "A" man, said he made man. It would be singular if it said he made "a" man, but it does not say such a thing.


if the bible isn't wrong, then it's "Man" not "Mankind"

it's amazing how you try to prove your point by trying to prove that the bible has been mis-translated ....


It means the SAME thing Funches lol. Again, it does not say "a" man, says man. And no I never said it was mis-translated.


if the bible isn't wrong...then stick to what is in the KJV ..and stop making up stuff

CowboyGH's photo
Mon 12/31/12 11:26 AM


Surrender what papers? And what's Perry Mason have to do with anything?

Jesus said his father and him were one, he said their wills were one. So with doing his father's will, he was also doing his will.


Cowboy...I've asked for a passage in which Jesus has his own will....

ok, I'll give you one

Father Father why hath thou forsaken me .....oops wrong one, that one proves that Jesus and the Father "are not one"


They are one, wills again Funches, their WILLS/DESIRES are one. The word translated into that is not referring to their physical self. Do you always not listen and make people repeat themselves over and over and over and over?

CowboyGH's photo
Mon 12/31/12 11:27 AM




No the bible isn't wrong, "man" doesn't have to be referring to a singular being. The scripture(s) do not say God made "A" man, said he made man. It would be singular if it said he made "a" man, but it does not say such a thing.


if the bible isn't wrong, then it's "Man" not "Mankind"

it's amazing how you try to prove your point by trying to prove that the bible has been mis-translated ....


It means the SAME thing Funches lol. Again, it does not say "a" man, says man. And no I never said it was mis-translated.


if the bible isn't wrong...then stick to what is in the KJV ..and stop making up stuff


Why stick to one translation Funches? Why not search them all including cross reference of the original to know the truth meaning?

Genesis 1:27
New International Version (NIV)
27 So God created mankind in his own image,
in the image of God he created them;
male and female he created them.

no photo
Mon 12/31/12 11:35 AM





No the bible isn't wrong, "man" doesn't have to be referring to a singular being. The scripture(s) do not say God made "A" man, said he made man. It would be singular if it said he made "a" man, but it does not say such a thing.


if the bible isn't wrong, then it's "Man" not "Mankind"

it's amazing how you try to prove your point by trying to prove that the bible has been mis-translated ....


It means the SAME thing Funches lol. Again, it does not say "a" man, says man. And no I never said it was mis-translated.


if the bible isn't wrong...then stick to what is in the KJV ..and stop making up stuff


Why stick to one translation Funches? Why not search them all including cross reference of the original to know the truth meaning?

Genesis 1:27
New International Version (NIV)
27 So God created mankind in his own image,
in the image of God he created them;
male and female he created them.


because we made a pact that we would only use the KJV for debates...which only proves your word means nothing ....