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Topic:
Who is Jesus Christ to you??
Edited by
CowboyGH
on
Wed 02/01/17 10:30 AM
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He's my God, my savior, my father, my creator and my friend
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Edited by
CowboyGH
on
Thu 01/26/17 03:46 PM
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When one says that one will immediately go to Heaven, it could mean that one will certainly not be thrown into the lake of fire. To me, that is what matters. Anyway, you are free to disagree with a preacher if you have biblical support for your disagreement. True, not putting the preacher down in any way whatsoever. Just in search of more specific verses along the lines. Because since he claims a "saved" Christian automatically goes to Heaven the "Hell gave up the dead" is not in reference to a Christian, for in his eyes they would already be in Heaven, the paradise. He claims that is a "second chance" for the "lost" to redeem themselves through judgement. But that goes against any and all scriptures that I know of. And in search of the specific verses that would verify this. So I don't just return to him with the same old verses already shown to him.... I think personally a couple of the biggest factors in this in his eyes, is once someone is set in their beliefs, they are set. Especially on the lines of a preacher. Now here comes a guy half his age and what not, fairly new to the church that tells him differently. And again he uses that verse of when the thief was on the cross, and Jesus says Luke 23:43 43 And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, Today shalt thou be with me in paradise. Not putting into consideration again in the original language they didn't have punctuation. But there is definite error in this thinking. As Jesus didn't return to the paradise that day, wasn't till 3 days after being in the tomb. But then again as I said he tries to say at death you automatically go to either, which again makes no sense. And I truly feel "called" to show him his error that I see... but can't grasp the verses to share with him to show him differently. Kind of reminds me of the baptists that I've personally had dealings with.. once you're saved, you're saved... no matter what... and again there's error in that thinking to a degree, there will be a "judgement" and God doesn't say he'll only judge the lost and the "saved" have a green card. |
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Edited by
CowboyGH
on
Thu 01/26/17 01:56 PM
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Yep, modern English versions of the Bible have fewer mentions of Hell. Revelation 20:13, English Standard Version: "And the sea gave up the dead who were in it, Death and Hades gave up the dead who were in them, and they were judged, each one of them, according to what they had done." Revelation 20:13, New International Version: "The sea gave up the dead that were in it, and death and Hades gave up the dead that were in them, and each person was judged according to what they had done." Revelation 20:13, Holman Christian Standard Bible: "Then the sea gave up its dead, and Death and Hades gave up their dead; all were judged according to their works." Anyway, it is what Revelation 20:14-15 says about the lake of fire that matters. The lake of fire is what people think of when they read or hear the Norse name Hell.  By the way, there really is a place called Hell. It is in Michigan.  True and ironically, hell and lake of fire are two totally different place, heck hell is thrown into the lake of fire lol. Just thought I'd bring it up here, as my preacher has said and speaks of things I never heard of or read through the scriptures. He says since he is "saved" he will immediately go to Heaven. Which makes no sense to me, as Jesus has said "no one has ascended to Heaven"... so why would "he" be more special then the previous people, and all the evidence even original word meanings of Hell point towards if we die on the face of this Earth we will go to "hell" eg., the grave in the ground or at sea. Then rise when the second coming happens. But he refuses to accept that and argues with me, I don't argue religion/God. So I left it at that. But just his persistence on it makes me wonder if I'm missing something scripturaly based or not and why I come to Mingle2 to hopefully find solid scriptural evidence on either side outside of what I've posted/mentioned. Also would like to add, not 100% if it's scriptural based, but "Heaven" was made for God and the angels. And Earth or more precisely the Garden of Eden was made for man. Thus after judgement Heaven and Earth are done away with and a new Heaven and Earth are created, joined together, so that man may reside with God once again. But no verses that I am aware of state we will, have been, or are going to go to the present Heaven... as again it is made for God and the angels. |
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Yep, modern English versions of the Bible have fewer mentions of Hell. Revelation 20:13, English Standard Version: "And the sea gave up the dead who were in it, Death and Hades gave up the dead who were in them, and they were judged, each one of them, according to what they had done." Revelation 20:13, New International Version: "The sea gave up the dead that were in it, and death and Hades gave up the dead that were in them, and each person was judged according to what they had done." Revelation 20:13, Holman Christian Standard Bible: "Then the sea gave up its dead, and Death and Hades gave up their dead; all were judged according to their works." Anyway, it is what Revelation 20:14-15 says about the lake of fire that matters. The lake of fire is what people think of when they read or hear the Norse name Hell. By the way, there really is a place called Hell. It is in Michigan. True and ironically, hell and lake of fire are two totally different place, heck hell is thrown into the lake of fire lol. Just thought I'd bring it up here, as my preacher has said and speaks of things I never heard of or read through the scriptures. He says since he is "saved" he will immediately go to Heaven. Which makes no sense to me, as Jesus has said "no one has ascended to Heaven"... so why would "he" be more special then the previous people, and all the evidence even original word meanings of Hell point towards if we die on the face of this Earth we will go to "hell" eg., the grave in the ground or at sea. Then rise when the second coming happens. But he refuses to accept that and argues with me, I don't argue religion/God. So I left it at that. But just his persistence on it makes me wonder if I'm missing something scripturaly based or not and why I come to Mingle2 to hopefully find solid scriptural evidence on either side outside of what I've posted/mentioned. |
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Judaism has no concept of "hell". And the translations from the original scriptures to ours now has been kind of misleading. Hell is nothing but the grave of sort, weather that be in the ground or in the sea. And never really put this into perspective, but not one person has gone to Heaven since the beginning of time.
John 3:13 13 And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven. Words translated into hell in our modern bible - Sheol = the abode of the dead - Gehenna = was a valley where they put their garbage eg., the dump and essentially placed dead body's as well - Hades = the grave or the pit. Anyone and everyone that has ever existed is in one of those, depending on the word you wish to use. Thus why we are later told - Revelation 20:13 13 And the sea gave up the dead which were in it; and death and hell delivered up the dead which were in them: and they were judged every man according to their works. Notice the "sea" gave up it's dead and "hell" gave up it's dead for judgement, thus we see the one's in graves or the one's that ended up in the ocean. I want your guesses perspective please, because my preacher and I disagree on this. And I have a strong feeling inside saying I'm right and he's wrong. He believes yes your "body" may go to hell or any various use of any of the words referenced, but your spirit goes straight to Heaven if you're "saved". I find error in this, as I don't know any verse that says that. And he used the example - Luke 23:43 43 And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, Today shalt thou be with me in paradise. Only problem/difficulty with that is that language didn't use punctuation eg., commas, periods, ect. So in fact he could have said "Verily I say up thee today, shalt thou be with me in paradise." Because also it never references Jesus returning to his Father or "paradise" THAT day. It wasn't till 3 days after his burial that he returned to the Father, but no other references of anyone going along with him in those scriptures. And also if we "immediately" go to Heaven or not as I've been proposed, then why does the following happen prior to judgement? Revelation 20:13 13 And the sea gave up the dead which were in it; and death and hell delivered up the dead which were in them: and they were judged every man according to their works. |
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Before I knew of God, I was not afraid of death. I was ready to die any day of the week. I never thought I would live past the age of 13. I figured I would get shot and die in the hood. Time passed and I was still alive. As I learned about God, I found out there was a hell. Thats when I feared death. Because I knew I deserved to be there. I confessed my sins to Jesus, and he changed my life. He made me a new person. I wish we could all live, and that nobody would die. But death is natural. It's a transition to a new life. It took me a long time to believe that God could forgive my sins. If in the bible he killed some of those who sinned against him, just imagine what he would do to me. But every time I prayed he didn't convict me. He comforted me. There were times I was in trouble/danger and I would pray... and I would feel like everything will be okay. And it always turned out okay. Many people that say are "Christians" don't even have Jesus in their heart. They are not saved. How do I know God exists? First, when "I" looked for him, I found him. He didn't show me miracles or the "proof" I needed to believe in him. Second, I knew there were bigger powers in the world that many don't know about. My 270++ lb aunt, went down to around 100 lbs over night. Not exaggerating. They did witchcraft on her. I have also met different types of witches. I also remember an incident where an old friends family member was having an exorcism done on their house. The doors and walls would shake. And they feared the name of Jesus. You blame God for the bad but don't see that humans are the ones that are doing the bad. God already won. Jesus stepped down from Heaven to die for us. So that we don't have to burn. Jesus didn't come to spread peace but he came with the sword. Just as Jesus is alive, so is Satan. Ever since Adam and Eve sinned, it has been war. But we won. Its been told by God. Not one prophecy has failed to become. Infact the bible is the only book with prophecy. I don't know why some live and some die. But I do know it happens. God is just. He will reveal himself if you look for him. If we believed in Jesus, why should death be feared? You ask why God did this and that but fail to realize he is God. Creator of all things both good and bad. He can do as he pleases. But what he does is right and just. We don't get saved by works, but it's by Gods will and grace. God really does love you but thats only something he can show you. Read a bible. A King James bible. And if you don't believe in God thats okay. The bible has a lot of wisdom on just about every subject. It has a solution for any problem you're facing. Give it a try. amen <3 |
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John 10: 33 “We are not stoning You for any good work,” said the Jews, “but for blasphemy, because You, who are a man, declare Yourself to be God.” 34 Jesus replied, “Is it not written in your Law: ‘I have said you are gods’? 35 If he called them gods to whom the word of God came—and the Scripture cannot be broken— 36 then what about the One whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world? How then can you accuse Me of blasphemy for stating that I am the Son of God? 37 If I am not doing the works of My Father, then do not believe Me. 38 But if I am doing them, even though you do not believe Me, believe the works themselves, so that you may know and understand that the Father is in Me, and I in the Father.” Thanks Harmony, he only became his "father" once God came to the world in the flesh. Prior to that, there is no reference of father/son. It's to keep that Marry was a virgin and Joseph had nothing to do with it. |
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Matthew 1:23
23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us. Isaiah 9:6 6 For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace. Isaiah 43:10 10 Ye are my witnesses, saith the Lord, and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me. John 1:3 3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made. Colossians 1:16 16 For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him: John 14:9-11 9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Show us the Father? 10 Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works. 11 Believe me that I am in the Father, and the Father in me: or else believe me for the very works' sake. John 20:28 28 And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God. Acts 20:28 28 Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood Colossians 2:9 9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily. 1 Timothy 3:16 16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory. Titus 2:13 13 Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ; Hebrews 1:8-9 8 But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom. 9 Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even thy God, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows |
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No thank you, I appreciate it and will look into it. But was here talking with you and who else might want to as well. There isn't two accounts of it so to speak, one is God's perspective of it, the other is LORD God's perspective of it. Working at the same time, not two different accounts of it. Back to "Where the father works so do I" I believe I've already read/seen gotquestions explanation for it... if I'm not mistaken, it claims 2 is a recap of 1 in more detail.. But you're missing the point Harmony... One says God did this or that, the other says LORD God did this or that. it is the product of the context in which the translation was made http://www.blueletterbible.org/faq/don_stewart/don_stewart_693.cfm and http://www.gotquestions.org/two-Creation-accounts.html I'll look at them, but believe one theory was it changed to LORD God after man was created. Which wouldn't work, because God created man in verse 26, but continues to say God after that. 31 And God saw every thing that he had made, and, behold, it was very good. And the evening and the morning were the sixth day. Lord God doesn't appear until 2:4 These are the generations of the heavens and of the earth when they were created, in the day that the Lord God made the earth and the heavens, Yep blueletterbible says what I said there lol bout being after man was created. But makes sense that it speaks of two different entities. For in the beginning was the Word and the Word was WITH God and the Word WAS God. And back to "where the father worketh so I have" Also if what the blueletterbible site was saying about the term changing due to man being created and the relation there of. It wouldn't change back to God in Genesis 3:3 3 But of the fruit of the tree which is in the midst of the garden, God hath said, Ye shall not eat of it, neither shall ye touch it, lest ye die. Then back to LORD God in Genesis 3:8 8 And they heard the voice of the Lord God walking in the garden in the cool of the day: and Adam and his wife hid themselves from the presence of the Lord God amongst the trees of the garden Wouldn't hop back and forth between the terms if it wasn't talking about two different entities. And again obviously the creation of man didn't have anything to do with it. And heck in 3:1 it uses both terms at the same time, also again displaying two different person(s) "beings" 3 Now the serpent was more subtil than any beast of the field which the Lord God had made. And he said unto the woman, Yea, hath God said, Ye shall not eat of every tree of the garden? Now through all this, please don't misunderstand what I say. Jesus and his father are one God. But that resorts back to the terminology "god" being a title. It's not a name or an entity, species, breed, ect in itself. And why he didn't find it robbery to put himself equal to God. |
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No thank you, I appreciate it and will look into it. But was here talking with you and who else might want to as well. There isn't two accounts of it so to speak, one is God's perspective of it, the other is LORD God's perspective of it. Working at the same time, not two different accounts of it. Back to "Where the father works so do I" I believe I've already read/seen gotquestions explanation for it... if I'm not mistaken, it claims 2 is a recap of 1 in more detail.. But you're missing the point Harmony... One says God did this or that, the other says LORD God did this or that. it is the product of the context in which the translation was made http://www.blueletterbible.org/faq/don_stewart/don_stewart_693.cfm and http://www.gotquestions.org/two-Creation-accounts.html I'll look at them, but believe one theory was it changed to LORD God after man was created. Which wouldn't work, because God created man in verse 26, but continues to say God after that. 31 And God saw every thing that he had made, and, behold, it was very good. And the evening and the morning were the sixth day. Lord God doesn't appear until 2:4 These are the generations of the heavens and of the earth when they were created, in the day that the Lord God made the earth and the heavens, Yep blueletterbible says what I said there lol bout being after man was created. But makes sense that it speaks of two different entities. For in the beginning was the Word and the Word was WITH God and the Word WAS God. And back to "where the father worketh so I have" Also if what the blueletterbible site was saying about the term changing due to man being created and the relation there of. It wouldn't change back to God in Genesis 3:3 3 But of the fruit of the tree which is in the midst of the garden, God hath said, Ye shall not eat of it, neither shall ye touch it, lest ye die. Then back to LORD God in Genesis 3:8 8 And they heard the voice of the Lord God walking in the garden in the cool of the day: and Adam and his wife hid themselves from the presence of the Lord God amongst the trees of the garden Wouldn't hop back and forth between the terms if it wasn't talking about two different entities. And again obviously the creation of man didn't have anything to do with it. And heck in 3:1 it uses both terms at the same time, also again displaying two different person(s) "beings" 3 Now the serpent was more subtil than any beast of the field which the Lord God had made. And he said unto the woman, Yea, hath God said, Ye shall not eat of every tree of the garden? Now through all this, please don't misunderstand what I say. Jesus and his father are one God. But that resorts back to the terminology "god" being a title. It's not a name or an entity, species, breed, ect in itself. |
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No thank you, I appreciate it and will look into it. But was here talking with you and who else might want to as well. There isn't two accounts of it so to speak, one is God's perspective of it, the other is LORD God's perspective of it. Working at the same time, not two different accounts of it. Back to "Where the father works so do I" I believe I've already read/seen gotquestions explanation for it... if I'm not mistaken, it claims 2 is a recap of 1 in more detail.. But you're missing the point Harmony... One says God did this or that, the other says LORD God did this or that. it is the product of the context in which the translation was made http://www.blueletterbible.org/faq/don_stewart/don_stewart_693.cfm and http://www.gotquestions.org/two-Creation-accounts.html I'll look at them, but believe one theory was it changed to LORD God after man was created. Which wouldn't work, because God created man in verse 26, but continues to say God after that. 31 And God saw every thing that he had made, and, behold, it was very good. And the evening and the morning were the sixth day. Lord God doesn't appear until 2:4 These are the generations of the heavens and of the earth when they were created, in the day that the Lord God made the earth and the heavens, Yep blueletterbible says what I said there lol bout being after man was created. But makes sense that it speaks of two different entities. For in the beginning was the Word and the Word was WITH God and the Word WAS God. And back to "where the father worketh so I have" Also if what the blueletterbible site was saying about the term changing due to man being created and the relation there of. It wouldn't change back to God in Genesis 3:3 3 But of the fruit of the tree which is in the midst of the garden, God hath said, Ye shall not eat of it, neither shall ye touch it, lest ye die. Then back to LORD God in Genesis 3:8 8 And they heard the voice of the Lord God walking in the garden in the cool of the day: and Adam and his wife hid themselves from the presence of the Lord God amongst the trees of the garden Wouldn't hop back and forth between the terms if it wasn't talking about two different entities. And again obviously the creation of man didn't have anything to do with it. |
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No thank you, I appreciate it and will look into it. But was here talking with you and who else might want to as well. There isn't two accounts of it so to speak, one is God's perspective of it, the other is LORD God's perspective of it. Working at the same time, not two different accounts of it. Back to "Where the father works so do I" I believe I've already read/seen gotquestions explanation for it... if I'm not mistaken, it claims 2 is a recap of 1 in more detail.. But you're missing the point Harmony... One says God did this or that, the other says LORD God did this or that. it is the product of the context in which the translation was made http://www.blueletterbible.org/faq/don_stewart/don_stewart_693.cfm and http://www.gotquestions.org/two-Creation-accounts.html I'll look at them, but believe one theory was it changed to LORD God after man was created. Which wouldn't work, because God created man in verse 26, but continues to say God after that. 31 And God saw every thing that he had made, and, behold, it was very good. And the evening and the morning were the sixth day. Lord God doesn't appear until 2:4 These are the generations of the heavens and of the earth when they were created, in the day that the Lord God made the earth and the heavens, Yep blueletterbible says what I said there lol bout being after man was created. But makes sense that it speaks of two different entities. For in the beginning was the Word and the Word was WITH God and the Word WAS God. And back to "where the father worketh so I have" |
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Edited by
CowboyGH
on
Wed 01/18/17 12:50 PM
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No thank you, I appreciate it and will look into it. But was here talking with you and who else might want to as well. There isn't two accounts of it so to speak, one is God's perspective of it, the other is LORD God's perspective of it. Working at the same time, not two different accounts of it. Back to "Where the father works so do I" I believe I've already read/seen gotquestions explanation for it... if I'm not mistaken, it claims 2 is a recap of 1 in more detail.. But you're missing the point Harmony... One says God did this or that, the other says LORD God did this or that. it is the product of the context in which the translation was made http://www.blueletterbible.org/faq/don_stewart/don_stewart_693.cfm and http://www.gotquestions.org/two-Creation-accounts.html I'll look at them, but believe one theory was it changed to LORD God after man was created. Which wouldn't work, because God created man in verse 26, but continues to say God after that. 31 And God saw every thing that he had made, and, behold, it was very good. And the evening and the morning were the sixth day. Lord God doesn't appear until 2:4 These are the generations of the heavens and of the earth when they were created, in the day that the Lord God made the earth and the heavens, |
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interesting the bible is not for the faint hearted interpretation of 'day' seems to be contextual in Genesis 5:1 , relating to only the creation of Man in Genesis 2:4 relating to a period of 'generations' day can be specific or a general period of time 'back in my day',,,,,for example Oh very true, and as time spans through the days have changed in just over the last few hundred years since we've been able to measure it. No telling how actually long the days were then. The day then could have last our week or few days or whatever it may have been. But it probably wasn't just a 24 hour period... also have to keep in mind the world was changed during the flood.. so no telling if the day time frame changed as well because of it. |
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No thank you, I appreciate it and will look into it. But was here talking with you and who else might want to as well. There isn't two accounts of it so to speak, one is God's perspective of it, the other is LORD God's perspective of it. Working at the same time, not two different accounts of it. Back to "Where the father works so do I" I believe I've already read/seen gotquestions explanation for it... if I'm not mistaken, it claims 2 is a recap of 1 in more detail.. But you're missing the point Harmony... One says God did this or that, the other says LORD God did this or that. |
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404 Not Found Is what happens through that link. |
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No thank you, I appreciate it and will look into it. But was here talking with you and who else might want to as well. There isn't two accounts of it so to speak, one is God's perspective of it, the other is LORD God's perspective of it. Working at the same time, not two different accounts of it. Back to "Where the father works so do I" |
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Genesis 5:1 5 This is the book of the generations of Adam. In the day that God created man, in the likeness of God made he him; Genesis 2:4 4 These are the generations of the heavens and of the earth when they were created, in the day that the Lord God made the earth and the heavens, |
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The Master God, or 'just' God, are both the same, the CREATOR as to Jesus , being the perfect representation for God, he would be mirroring and duplicating Gods will and Gods works,,, though Im not sure what verse you are referencing Genesis 1 27 So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them. Genesis 2 7 And the Lord God formed man of the dust of the ground, and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life; and man became a living soul. =========== Genesis 1 12 And the earth brought forth grass, and herb yielding seed after his kind, and the tree yielding fruit, whose seed was in itself, after his kind: and God saw that it was good. Genesis 2 5 And every plant of the field before it was in the earth, and every herb of the field before it grew: for the Lord God had not caused it to rain upon the earth, and there was not a man to till the ground. ========== Just interesting in Genesis 1 God creates man and woman simultaneously. In Genesis 2 He makes man in verse 7 and woman in 22 Genesis 2 22 And the rib, which the Lord God had taken from man, made he a woman, and brought her unto the man |
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as stated before of Course God didn't refer to himself with any of the english words we read in our Bible but one of the english words that were used for translation was 'Lord' which(as happens in english) is used in more than one context God most likely referenced that he is THEE MASTER, which he is,,, he also instructs that servants should listen to their 'masters', so he was not the only master but he was the master OF the masters, and everyone else maybe this will help with putting in context the way the original words translated into the words we now read: In an attempt to represent the Hebrew term for God in the Bible, scholars have taken to using English words with different capitalization. In addition, different translations use the terms in different ways. To make matters worse, translators have tried to respect the Hebrew tradition of not spelling out God's name. Here are a few of the terms used in the Bible and what they refer to in the original Hebrew. LORD or LORD: This spelling is usually used when God's proper name is meant. The Hebrew, without vowels, is YHWH. Other translations are Yahweh or Jehovah. Lord: "Lord" or "lord" in the Old Testament merely refers to someone of a higher rank (Genesis 18:12), including the pre-incarnate Christ, if the speaker isn't aware of His identity (Genesis 18:3). If the translation used William Tyndale's suggestion, the Hebrew Adonai was translated as "Lord" to distinguish it from YHWH. In the New Testament, "Lord" is the Greek kurios, which simply means master, whether referring to God (Matthew 1:20), Jesus (Matthew 7:21), or a general authority (Matthew 18:27). GOD: "God" is an old English word which may have its origins in the Proto-Indo-European word ghu, which means to pour a libation. In the Bible, it is used for the Hebrew Elohim, which just means god, but since God is the only true god, it's an appropriate identifier. The prefix of Elohim, "el," is used in many proper names. Elohim is also related to the Arabic Allah. "God" in the New Testament is the Greek theos, which means any deity. https://www.biblegateway.com/quicksearch/?quicksearch=no+masters&qs_version=KJV of course, there are differences in interpretations, and this is not the ONLY explanation or answer, but it sits right in my brain and my soul To make matters worse, translators have tried to respect the Hebrew tradition of not spelling out God's name. So who then is Lord God and God in genesis 1 and 2. I already knew bout he not spelling God's name as it's to holy to say. And yes it is just an integram or whatever that word is lol, because the greeks didn't have vowels in their alphabet. But more to the point, who is the two different entities and reference of God and Lord God in Gen 1 and 2 then? And if one is not Jesus, why did Jesus say where the father works so have I. |
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